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The apostle Paul, who answered questions from Christians pertaining to divorce and marriage (1 Cor. 7:1, 2), is the only New Testament writer that used the word agamos. He employed it four times and all are found in one chapter (1 Cor. 7:8, 11, 32, and 34). This is the chapter where he sought to settle an issue that was plaguing (and continues to plague) preachers and church leaders in their pursuit of an answer to the question "Who may marry?" (which clearly is the gist of the chapter). The apostle set forth some straightforward answers. Some are given in the form of direct commands; but, unfortunately, there remains disagreement as to whom the "unmarried" refers. I set forth two relevant questions at the outset of this study: 1) "Would it be reasonable to conclude that the divorced, during the time of Paul's writing, did not consider themselves as being "unmarried"? 2) Did the apostle write anything that would suggest that the divorced, regardless of the reason, were not to be included in his instructions as to how to deal with the unmarried, i.e., to "let them marry"?
Strong's Concordance
agamos: unmarried
Original Word: ἅγαμος, οῦ, ὁ, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: agamos
Phonetic Spelling: (ag'-am-os)
Definition: unmarried
Usage: unmarried, of a person not in a state of wedlock, whether he or she has formerly been married or not.
A very common tradition in many Christian-based religious circles is that the divorced commit continuous adultery by marrying and must therefore remain celibate. Those who believe, teach, and promote this position understand that their view has Paul teaching contrary to their idea of what Jesus taught if it can be shown that the "unmarried," in verse 8, includes the divorced. ("I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I.") This is because in the next verse Paul emphatically states, "But if they cannot contain let them marry." These teachers contend that the context, where "agamos" is used, indicates that Paul has reference to virgins and/or widows-except in verse 11, where they need the same word to refer to the divorced.
To understand the context, one must back up to the beginning of the chapter. Here Paul commands to "Let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband." The fact that he uses the word "EVERY" indicates that he has in mind the common need of man for marriage "to avoid fornication." This would logically include those divorced because people who have been married are generally more prone to the temptation to commit fornication than one who has not previously had a spouse.
The renowned scholar Albert Barnes, a proponent of the traditional MDR position, wrote comments pertaining to 1 Corinthians 7:8, 9. Regarding the "unmarried" he said:
"To the unmarried. The word unmarried (~agamoiv~) may refer either to those who had never been married, or to widowers. It here means simply those who were at that time unmarried, and his reasoning applies to both classes."
Yes, "It here means simply those who were at that time unmarried."
In view of the absence of context that indicates the above passage applies ONLY to those who have never married or who are widows, the natural interpretation is that the "unmarried" includes those divorced. God authorized divorce (a timeless law) under the Law of Moses. It was designed to end a marriage, which would allow the woman to marry another. (Divorce was a non-issue for the man because he could have more than one wife.) Before God instituted this law, when a man ended his relationship with a wife she was still married to him and could not marry another man. This is the reason God commanded men to give the woman a certificate of divorcement (Deut. 24:1, 2) - that she might "go and be another man's wife." We know for certain that this was not a man-made law because Moses was inspired by God to write the law (John 5:45-47). Furthermore, God used the very same law in divorcing His wife, Israel (Jer. 3:8), which tells us He approved of the divorce law.
Barnes Verse 9:
"But if they cannot contain. If they have not the gift of continence; if they cannot be secure against temptation; if they have not strength of virtue enough to preserve them from the danger of sin, and of bringing reproach and scandal on the church.
"It is better." It is to be preferred.
"Than to burn. The passion here referred to is often compared to a fire. See Virg. AEn. iv. 68. It is better to marry, even with all the inconveniences attending the marriage life in a time of distress and persecution in the church, #1Co 7:26, than to be the prey of raging, consuming, and exciting passions."
In view of the NEED for marriage, which was ably and ardently articulated by Mr. Barnes, and Paul's classifying "forbidding to marry" as "doctrines of devils" (1 Tim. 4:1-3), the idea that Paul failed to authorize the divorced to marry would seem to be imprudent and irresponsible.
The substance of the chapter, which includes verses 27 and 28 (that we will address later), supports the view that the "divorced" are "unmarried." Thus, the emphatic command in verse 9 to "let them marry" (directed to any who might object due to human tradition handed down through sermons and magazine articles) applies to those who have been divorced.
Verses 10, 11:
"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife."
Admittedly, this passage presents some difficulty in understanding the apostle's message regarding divorce and marriage, but the difficulty is not limited to one position. If agamos means divorce, as God defined it (Deut. 24:1, 2), in the above passage, then it must also mean divorce in verse 9, which, if proven true, is devastating to the positon that the divorced may not marry. Since it has been established that agamos refers to the divorced in verse 9 what are we going to do with the seeming notion that Paul contradicted himself by first teaching that the divorced may marry and then later saying they must not? Perhaps there is some logical explanation that allows these two passages to be in harmony.
A word may have a different meaning in a different context. This is apparently the case with Paul's use of agamos in verse 11-it does not mean the same thing as it does in verse 9. In verse 11, the context is not divorce but simply a case in which a married woman "departs" or "leaves" (aphieami). That some use this passage in an attempt to make it appear that Paul is teaching celibacy-right in the middle of a chapter where he has taught the opposite, commanded Christians to allow the unmarried to marry, and asserted that "they do not sin" - shows total lack of respect for context. Let's take an honest look at this often abused text:
Three things must be considered in trying to determine the meaning of "unmarried" in the above passage: 1) it has been established that Paul commanded to allow the "unmarried" to marry; 2) the "unmarried" includes the divorced; and 3) the context supports the notion that the woman merely departed or left and that she was NOT divorced. Thus, "unmarried," in this context, must have a somewhat different meaning than it does in verse 9.
First, the passage is addressed to "the married." This suggests that the context is not about divorce. The woman is currently married, and the Lord's instruction is that she not "depart" or "leave" her husband. Paul provides no instructions here as to what a "divorced" person may or may not do, nor does he so much as give a hint (anywhere in his writings) that a divorce must be initiated for adultery and that only the innocent party may marry. Had this been Paul's understanding he surely would have addressed it. But, again, he did not even hint in that direction. To the contrary, he gave every indication that the "unmarried" (the divorced, for whatever reason) are to be allowed to marry.
Scholars do not think the context of verse 11 is about divorce. Let's note some comments:
STRONG (as quoted from SwordSearcher):
[Grk. 5563] chorizo (kho-rid'-zo) from 5561; to place room between, i.e. part; reflexively, to go away:--depart, put asunder, separate.
Below is a comment from Robertson that makes it clear that he thought Paul was talking about "separation" when he spoke of departing:
Robertson's Word Pictures:
"But and if she depart....If, in spite of Christ's clear prohibition, she get separated...."
Another highly respected scholar, below, speaks about the language and the context regarding the phrase "let her remain unmarried":
Bloomfield [The Greek New Testament]:
From the use of καταλλ [reconcile] and the air of the context it is plain that the apostle is not speaking of formal divorces, affected by law, but separations whether agreed on or not, arising from misunderstandings or otherwise.
JFB:
But and if she depart - or 'be separated.' If the sin of separation has been committed, that of a new marriage is not to be added. (Mt 5:32).
Pulpit Commentary:
If she depart. The reference throughout the verse is to separation due to incompatibility of temper, etc.; not to legal divorce.
Weymouth Translation:
Or if she has already left him, let her either remain as she is or be reconciled to him; and that a husband is not to send away his wife.
Montgomery Translation:
Or if she has already left him let her either remain as she is, or be reconciled to him), and also that a husband is not to put away his wife.
Robertson's Word Studies (1 Cor. 7:8):
Agamos is an old word and in N.T. occurs only in this passage. In 1Co_7:11, 1Co_7:34 it is used of women where the old Greeks would have used anandros, without a husband.
Robertson suggests that the word in verse 8 is not the same word as that found in verse 11. If this is true then the idea that our usual English translation "unmarried" has a different meaning in verse 11 than the meaning in verse 8 would follow. Whether Robertson is correct or not the following definitions of "unmarried" do no injustice to the word translated "unmarried" in verse 11:
1. not married. 2. a person who lives celibate. 3. a person living solo after a past relationship failed. 4. a person who chooses to live single.
Verses 27, 28:
While this passage does not contain the word "unmarried" it would be irresponsible not to consider it in seeking to understand the meaning of Paul's teaching in the chapter regarding the "unmarried."
Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless, such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.
It is clear that Paul addressed "virgins" in verse 25, but he now addresses those who are married or have been married. He encourages those who are married not to seek divorce and advises those who are already divorced, and perhaps also those whose spouse has died, not to seek a wife. But since he later addresses widows specifically (verse 39) this text may not have been applicable to them. He follows with a statement intended to be pertinent to the "loosed" as well as those who had never married.
Since Paul's command was directed to a woman who is, or would be, separated, rather than divorced, it is irresponsible to try to force 1 Corinthians 7:11 to support the assumption that Paul taught celibacy. That concept is contrary to everything recorded in the chapter relating to marriage. It is not consistent with the context or the language nor is it consistent with the gist of Paul's teaching. He was totally against requiring celibacy and classified it as "doctrines of devils" (1 Tim. 4:1-3).
If one contends that the word "unmarried," in verse 11, means "divorced," to be consistent he must apply that same meaning to the same word where it is found in verses 8 and 9, which would prove too much. Here the apostle writes: "I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, it is good for them if they abide even as I. But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn." Why would the apostle Paul command to let the unmarried marry in one passage and then immediately turn around and say the opposite, using the same word? Of course, he wouldn't and he didn't. In verses 8 and 9, the teaching is that those who do not have a marriage are to be allowed to marry, whereas verses 10 and 11 teach that the "married" are to remain in that state, even if separated, due to the "present distress."
One important rule of hermeneutics is "do not construe one passage so as to contradict another." Since there is no getting around the fact that verses 8 and 9 refer to the divorced and that in verse 11 the context is not about divorce, the latter passage must be the one with the word that has the alternate meaning.
If the wife has "departed" or already left, i.e., gone out of the home back to the parents, or wherever, she is exhorted to "remain as she is" (in the separated state) or go back to her husband (not ex-husband). Divorce is not under consideration here. If a husband or wife actually ends the marriage by divorce this text no longer applies.
This links closely with Paul's similar comment in verses 27-28 that those who are divorced should not remarry because of "the present distress" (verse 26), but that if such persons do remarry, then they are to understand that they "have not sinned."
Conclusion:
Those who use 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 to teach that divorced persons have no right to marry are misinterpreting Paul's teachings. They do grave injustice to the crux of Paul's teaching, which is that we must allow marriage for people who need it so they can "avoid fornication" (1 Cor. 7:2).
The primary teaching of the apostle Paul is that those who are married should remain that way, and not only that but also they should be faithful (Col. 3:9; Eph. 5:22). If a couple has problems and they become separated, they should not make unwise and hasty decisions, especially during the time of distress, but be patient and endeavor to work things out.
Suggested Reading:
Are The Divorced Required to Live Celibate?
Divorced ("Unmarried") But Still "Bound"
"Put Away For Fornication"
"Forbidding to Marry": The Devil's Most Successful Doctrine
Marriage and Divorce: A Clear and Intelligible Exposition
Does Divorce End a Marriage?
Open Bible Study: Who Has A Right To Marriage?
A Comprehensive Study of 1 Corinthians Chapter 7
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