Romans 7:4
Taking a Closer Look
Israel (Divorced) "Married to Another" -- Christ

by Robert Waters

In view of the fact that Deuteronomy 24:1-2, a key text in the divorce and remarriage question, was almost completely overlooked until a couple of decades ago, it should not come as a surprise that another important text, Romans 7:4, has also gone unnoticed. Having recently updated my Sword Searcher Bible software, I now have 37 commentaries at my fingertips. While studying Romans 7:4, I was shocked to see that only two of these commentaries, Barnes and Gil (among my favorites), did not “observe the Passover” on this important passage (for example: “No Pulpit text for this verse”). Several commentaries said nothing about verses 2 and 3. Unfortunately, a few sought to use these verses to teach that only death ends a marriage.

Let’s now take a close look at verse 4, which has often been overlooked or perhaps ignored for too long.

Verse 4: "Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God."

Paul was talking to God's children of old (Israel, and perhaps Judah, could be included) about being "married to another," Christ. Israel was the divorced wife of God—divorced according to the Law (Deut. 24:1-2; Jer. 3:8), and Jesus married her (Rom. 7:4). She had become spiritual Israel--the bride of Christ. This teaching is consistent with the idea that divorce ends a marriage as affirmed by Moses, confirmed by God's using a personal example, and upheld by the apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 7, who employed various arguments to make his points regarding the need for marriage and the obligation to allow those who are "unmarried" (have no marriage) to marry. (See verses 1-2; 8-9; 27-28).

As the teaching in Romans 7:4 is being brought to light, efforts are being made to explain it in such a way that it does no damage to the traditional MDR position. Below are arguments that are being made, followed by my replies:

1) "Them that know the law" can refer to anyone who knows the law.

Reply: Verse 4 is addressed to "them that know the Law" (Rom. 7:1). The very fact that verses 2 and 3 are talking about the Law, and people's being free from it due to its death, is absolute proof that Israel is under consideration where the phrase "them that know the Law" is used. Thus, there is no question as to whom is addressed. On this passage, Gil wrote: "for I speak to them that know the law; not the law of nature, but the law of Moses, as the Jews did, being trained up in the knowledge of it; to these he appeals."

2) The adulterous people of Israel who were divorced, referred to in Jeremiah 3, had been dead a long time when Romans 7 was written.

Reply: Israel is the word or name that applies to God’s chosen people of old—described as his wife but composed of numerous individuals. Obviously Paul was not addressing DEAD PEOPLE. Israel existed at the time and exists to this day. Paul addressed these people as "Them that know the Law"—not knew the Law (past tense), but "KNOW" the Law (present tense).

3) By the time of Christ, Israel no longer existed as a people. Judah (God’s other wife) was all that was left.

Reply: Israel was God's first wife. The phrase "them that know the Law" could logically apply to Judah as well, but God determined to speak of the saved—the church—as spiritual Israel. At the time of Paul's writing Jewish teachings and practices were very much a consideration. As noted above, Israel exists to this day.

4) It is the church—not national Israel—who married Christ.

Reply: The above was said in a debate I had with a brother and is merely a smokescreen or quibble. The church is the saved body of Christ (Acts 2:47) of which God's people of old were prophesied to be a part. Paul spoke of prophecy regarding the above when he said, "all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer" (Rom. 11:26; Isa 59:20). Who is the "Israel" noted in the foregoing text? She is God’s wife that he divorced (Jer. 3:8, 14), but of whom he later said "shall be saved." "Of this man's seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Savior, Jesus" (Acts 13:23).

Israel (God’s people) has always been in the plan to be saved eternally. Paul spoke of the prophecy of old regarding a new covenant that God would make with them (Heb. 8:8-10; Jer. 31:31). Then he wrote of the remnant that would be saved: "Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved" (Rom. 9:27). God waited patiently on them with outstretched hands (Rom. 10:2). And he made a way whereby they could come unto him—mercy through Jesus. "And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God" (Gal. 6:16).

The church is the bride of Christ. "I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb's wife" (Rev. 21:9). Paul had hope for Israel, whom God had divorced. "That for the hope of Israel I am bound with this chain" (Acts 28:20b). And he desired and prayed that they would be saved (Rom. 10:1).

5) If Israel married Jesus she would be remarrying God, not another.

Reply: There are THREE persons in the godhead—Father, Son and Holy Spirit (Luke 3:21-22). Evidently, where Jeremiah 3:8 and 14 speak of God's having married Israel, reference is not being made to Jesus. What we have, based on what Paul said, is Israel now marrying another person in the godhead—not marrying the same person, as suggested by the comment above.

6) Romans 7:1-4 says DEATH—not divorce—allows the second marriage.

Reply: It is true that verses 1-3 speak of death as ending a marriage. But this illustrates what I'm endeavoring to point out in this article—that verse 4 has been overlooked or ignored. Clearly, verse 4 speaks of marriage to Christ. To insist that the context is only about death of the Law ("husband") is to deny what Paul said—that God's ex-wife ("them that know the Law"—Israel) was allowed to marry Christ. Both "divorce" and "death" allowed Israel to "be married to another."

Conclusion:

Jesus (a person in the godhead) married Israel, whom God had declared to be his wife, but divorced using God's definition of divorce given to Moses. This Israel was not just "put away" but actually divorced, as was made clear when God gave the "bill of divorcement." There is no question as to whether Israel was divorced, and Paul taught that she could marry another—not the same one to whom she had previously been married. This is in harmony with his teaching in 1 Corinthians 7, regarding those who need a spouse to "avoid fornication" (verses 1-2); his teaching regarding the "unmarried" (divorced), saying "let them marry" (8-9); and his teaching regarding the "loosed" (divorced), saying they do not sin if they marry (27-28).

If the traditional theory (originating with Catholicism) is correct then God's divorced wife, Israel, is committing spiritual adultery with Christ.

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