Is Romans 7:4 a Text Without Meaning?

Romans 7:4a "...That ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead..."

The first verse of chapter 7 confirms the people to whom the above text refers: "For I speak to them that know the Law" - Israel. Our concern in this article is to deal with the mindset, and arguments, of brethren who seem to think this passage means nothing. For decades, verses 1-3 have been used to teach that only death ends a marriage (even though most assert that there is an exception to the rule), but verse 4 has been completely ignored. Now that this text has come to light, some (among those who have traditionally denied marriage for the divorced) are persuaded that it can no longer be ignored and must be explained away.

One argument advanced in an attempt to destroy the force of this passage is that the marriage God had with Israel was not literal. One preacher asked me, "How is it literal when God had no one-flesh union with Israel?" Marriage is a bond connecting two parties who are thereafter considered husband and wife. Jesus spoke of spiritual marriage as being us in him and him in us. While there is no sex per se, two certainly become one and it is a literal unity or oneness. We are not speaking of something that has not really happened. When God said "for I am married unto you" (speaking about Israel) we must conclude that they were indeed married and it was a literal marriage. Those who are more concerned with truth than defending tradition have no problem seeing Jeremiah 3:14 as settling the matter - proving that it is impossible to get around the fact that God and Israel were married.

Let's back up just a bit and see what the prophet said to enlighten us regarding the question of whether Romans 7:4 is a text without meaning.

Jeremiah 3:8 "And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also. And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled the land, and committed adultery with stones and with stocks."

After God confirmed what Moses taught (Deut. 24:1-2) regarding the definition of divorce - putting emphasis on the certificate as being an essential element, as opposed to merely sending away - he made a statement that helps defeat the argument that his marriage with Israel was not literal. In verse 9, we see that Israel "committed adultery with stones and stocks." Some insist that adultery is always sexual and when the above text is noted they argue that the adultery is not literal. But clearly the sin committed was literal. God even noted the literal objects that were involved: "stocks and stones" - false gods that were being worshipped. Was their sin not adultery because it was not sexual?

There is a difference between "sexual" and "literal."

literal - Dictionary Definition : www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/literal

In this question, literal is an adjective that means without interpretation or embellishment. To describe something as literal is to say that it is exactly what it seems to be. For example, if you put up a literal barrier to keep the world out, you've actually built a real wall.

Literal: Define Literal at Dictionary.com - dictionary.reference.com/browse/literal
in accordance with, involving, or being the primary or strict meaning of the word or words; not figurative or metaphorical: the literal meaning of a word. following the words of the original very closely and exactly: a literal translation of Goethe.

If you can deny that the marriage God had with Israel was literal, and thereafter disregard Romans 7:4, then you have to deny that the adultery Israel committed was literal. This would mean Israel did not sin and God had no real reason to divorce her. If you deny that Jesus is married to the church then you have to accept that He is committing fornication with her--because they ARE producing fruit!

Now look again at what Paul said regarding Israel's marrying:

Romans 7:4a "...That ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God."

Jesus (a person in the godhead) married Israel, whom God had declared to be his wife. This wife was divorced yet Paul taught that she could marry another. This is in harmony with his teaching in 1 Corinthians 7, regarding those who need a spouse to "avoid fornication" (verses 1-2); his teaching regarding the "unmarried" (divorced), saying "let them marry" (8-9); and his teaching regarding the "loosed" (divorced), saying they do not sin if they marry (27-28).