I thank brother Waters for his kindness and gentlemanliness during this discussion. In the midst of a pressing schedule that included adjusting to a new job as a school administrator, evangelistic work, completion of my doctoral dissertation, and numerous other responsibilities, I have attempted to submit articles for this debate. Robert’s patience with my lack of expeditiousness is laudable.
Robert said that I criticized his “suggestion for arriving at truth on MDR” by eliminating possibilities. He attempted to defend his approach, saying, “We can narrow the field down to two ... choices: 1) Jesus taught that divorced people commit adultery when they marry; and 2) Jesus taught that one ‘put away’ (not fully divorced) commits adultery in marrying another.” I have no problem with the procedure of “eliminating choices” providing all of the choices are represented correctly and some choices are truly eliminated.
However, once again, Robert has misrepresented my position in this first choice. I do not teach that all “divorced people commit adultery when they marry.” In fact, I have specifically cited the exception given by Jesus in Matthew 19:9, “…whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” HOWEVER, other than the ONE EXCEPTION Jesus gave, it is indeed the case that “WHOEVER divorces his wife … and marries another, commits adultery”! That is what the Lord affirmed and, unfortunately, what Robert denies.
Robert said, “The first choice could not be true because it would require Jesus to break His promise (Matt 5:17-32).” This, of course, is untrue. Jesus said, “… till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law TILL all is fulfilled” (Matthew 5:18). The Old Testament law (cf. Hebrews 8:7-13) would end when it was fulfilled. The OT itself says it would end (Jeremiah 31:31-33). When that Old Law ended, Jesus’ New Law would take effect (Colossians 2:14; Hebrews 9:15-17), including the provisions of Matthew 19:9.
Jesus’ teaching was often NT teaching—instruction regarding requirements applicable to the New Covenant would be operable (Matthew 4:17— “From that time Jesus began to preach ... Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”). I have previously provided examples of His teaching regarding the Lord’s supper (Matthew 26:26-29; Mark 14:22-25; Luke 22:19-20), the new birth (John 3:3-5), and church discipline (Matthew 18:17). The Lord kept Moses’ law perfectly while it was still in effect; however, He also taught people what would be required according to the “new testament” (Hebrews 9:15; 12:24; 2Corinthians 3:6-11). Despite brother Waters' charge of “contradiction,” it is quite easy to understand the principle involved in Jesus obeying the law currently in effect (Old Law) while providing instruction regarding the New Law that is soon to take effect. In Matthew 19:9 our Lord provides NT instruction: “whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” Contrary to Robert’s affirmation, not all divorced person may marry with God’s approval. When some divorced persons marry, adultery results!
Robert thinks he eliminated choice one. He wrote, “This leaves number two as the ONLY logical answer.” What was choice two? “Jesus taught that one ‘put away’ (not fully divorced) commits adultery in marrying another” (emphasis TNT). Critical to Robert’s position is that “put away” in Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32 means “not fully divorced.” However, evidence from a variety of sources knowledgeable about the vocabulary of the Bible, give “divorce” as a definition of apoluo. Those who translated Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32 often used the word “divorce.” This is such a fundamental and vital issue that I will again summarize the evidence that refutes Robert’s basic tenet.
Greek Translators (Matthew 19:9)
According to Robert, ALL of these translators are WRONG.
New King James Version: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”
New International Version: “…anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
New American Standard Bible: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
New Living Translation: “…whoever divorces his wife and marries someone else commits adultery—unless his wife has been unfaithful.”
English Standard Version: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”
New Life Version: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for sex sins, and marries another, is guilty of sex sins in marriage. Whoever marries her that is divorced is guilty of sex sins in marriage.”
Holman Christian Standard Bible: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”
New International Reader’s Version: “…Anyone who divorces his wife and gets married to another woman commits adultery. A man may divorce his wife only if she has not been faithful to him.”
Today’s New International Version: “…anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
Revised Standard Version: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another, commits adultery.”
New Revised Standard Version: “…whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another commits adultery.”
Complete Jewish Bible: “…whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery!”
Weymouth New Testament: “…whoever divorces his wife for any reason except her unfaithfulness, and marries another woman, commits adultery.”
Greek Translators (Matthew 5:32)
New King James Version: “...whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”
New American Standard Version: “...everyone who divorces his wife, except for the cause of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
New International Version: “...anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to commit adultery, and anyone who marries a woman so divorced commits adultery.”
Revised Standard Version: “...every one who divorces his wife, except on the ground of unchastity, makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
King James Version: “...whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.”
Greek Lexicographers and Grammarians
According to Robert, ALL of these lexicographers and grammarians are also WRONG.
Greek-English New Testament Lexicon (Berry, 1952): “...to release, let go, to send away,... divorce ...” (p.12)
Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (Thayer, 1967): “...to set free...to let go, dismiss...to let go free, to release...used of divorce...Mt. i.19; v. 31 sq; xix.3, 7-9; Mk. x.2, 4, 11; Lk. Xvi.18...” (p.66)
The Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker, 1979): “...set free, release, pardon...let go, send away, dismiss—a. divorce...Mt 1:19; 5:31f; 19:3, 7-9; Mk 10:2, 4, 11...Lk 16:18...” (p.96)
Shorter Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (Gingrich, 1975): “...release, set free, pardon... let go, send away, dismiss,...Divorce...” (p.24)
Index-Lexicon to the New Testament (Young, n.d.): “...dismiss, divorce, forgive, let depart, let go, loose, put away, release, send away, set at liberty...” (p.61)
A Concise Dictionary of the Words in the Greek Testament (Strong, 1890): “...to free fully... relieve, release, dismiss...divorce...” p.14)
The Analytical Greek Lexicon (Zondervan, 1970): “...to loose...to release...to divorce to remit, forgive...to liberate, discharge...to dismiss...to allow to depart, to send away...” (p.46)
An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words (Vine, 1966): “...to let loose from, let go free...it is further used of divorce in Matt. 1:19; 19:3, 7-9; Mark 10:2, 4, 11; Luke 16:18 ...” (vol.I, p.329)
The Englishman’s Greek Concordance of the New Testament (Wigram, 1970): “...depart, dismiss, divorce, forgive, let depart, let go, loose, put away, release, send away, set at liberty” (p.953)
Hebrew Lexicographers and Grammarians
Student’s Hebrew Lexicon (Davies & Mitchell, 1960): “a cutting off; then separation, divorce Deut. 24,1” (p.306).
Old Testament Word Studies (Wilson, 1870): “...divorce…divorcement” (p.519). This is the meaning given for Deuteronomy 24. He lists this passage under the heading “divorce”!
Now, you can choose to believe Robert (“put away” is not “divorce” in passages such as Matthew 19:9 and 5:32), but numerous lexicographers and translators (whom, I suspect, know more about the original languages than brother Waters) say that the “putting away” is divorce in these passages. For example, once more, look at Matthew 5:32—“...whosoever shall PUT AWAY his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is DIVORCED committeth adultery.” The “put away” woman is the “divorced” woman! Therefore, Robert’s fundamental premise is simply WRONG. Consequently, his whole argument crumbles.
My friend comments, “Tom does not fully understand that divorce ends a marriage.” Wrong again, Robert. Divorce does end a marriage, but it does not free a person to marry someone else with God’s approval. Since my opponent cited Weymouth’s translation, I will cite it on this matter: ““And I tell you that whoever DIVORCES his wife for any reason except her unfaithfulness, and MARRIES another woman, commits adultery.”
Robert contends that Romans 7 “does not mention any exception, thus it teaches too much for Tom.” I am disappointed that Robert seems not to understand the basic principle of taking ALL that the Bible says on a subject. His thinking is no better than that of the people who read John 3:16 and conclude that baptism is not necessary (ignoring other passages such as Acts 2:38, 22:16, Mark16:16, and 1Peter 3:21). Robert's comment that Romans7 gives no exception still has no merit, because the exception is stated in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9).
Robert responds to my observation that "the marriage and the bond are not the same" by saying, “This is a straw man.” Why did Robert not reply to my scriptural argument from Romans 7:2-3? I explained, “The woman is married to a second man while still bound to the first (:2-3). What many people fail to understand is that two people who marry are joined by more than their marriage covenant—they are ‘bound’ by God.” The bond existed after the marriage ended in divorce. This is why the woman who “marries another man … will be called an adulteress”—she is still “bound” to her first husband by God!
Robert asks, "Is one actually divorced just because he/she departs?" No. However, the “putting away” of Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32 IS “divorce,” according to the evidence from lexicographers and translators already cited. My friend proceeds to comment, “All we need to do is hear, accept and obey what God has said (Deut 24:1-4).” Brethren, why is it necessary to point out repeatedly to Robert that Deuteronomy 24 is OLD TESTAMENT teaching? Just look at the context:
Verse 5: “When a man has taken a new wife, he shall not go out to war or be charged with any business; he shall be free at home one year, and bring happiness to his wife whom he has taken.”
Is this teaching applicable today?
Verses 10-11: “When you lend your brother anything, you shall not go into his house to get his pledge. You shall stand outside, and the man to whom you lend shall bring the pledge out to you.”
Is this command applicable today?
Verse 18: “But you shall remember that you were a slave in Egypt, and the LORD your God redeemed you from there.”
When were you a slave in Egypt, Robert? How many people today whom you encourage to violate Matthew 19:9 were ever slaves in Egypt?
Verse 22: “And you shall remember that you were a slave in the land of Egypt; THEREFORE I command you to do this thing.”
The law of which these verses were a part is the same law of which verses 1-4 are a part!
Commenting on 1Timothy 4:3, Robert alleges, “You are condemning scriptural marriages.” No. I accept Jesus’ condemnation of marriages in violation of Matthew 19:9. God says, “… whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, COMMITS ADULTERY; and whoever marries her who is divorced COMMITS ADULTERY”! The truth is that brother Waters approves some marriages in which adultery is involved.
My brother says, “Speaking of ALL unmarried (which includes the divorced) he [Paul] said, ‘LET THEM MARRY.’” The issue in this context (1Corinthians 7:1-7) is marriage versus celibacy. Paul recommends celibacy in some instances, while not discrediting marriage. Nothing about marriage itself would prevent unmarried people from marrying. However, some are not scripturally eligible to marry another because to do so results in their committing adultery (Matthew 19:9; 5:32). We must take ALL that God says about marriage and divorce, not just three words (“let them marry”) out of context.
Robert complains about the Lord’s teaching (Matthew 19:9; 5:32), saying, “The only hope of a ‘scriptural marriage’ is to break up this ‘unscriptural marriage’ and remarry the original spouse.” It is NOT an "abomination before the LORD" to quit committing adultery! Remember that God’s people in Ezra’s day “broke up” marriages, some in which children were involved, in order to please God: “We have trespassed against our God, and have taken pagan wives from the peoples of the land … let us make a covenant with our God to put away all these wives and those who have been born to them” (Ezra 10:2-3).
Although my remaining space is limited, I want to comment on Robert’s “answers” to some of my questions. Robert evaded several questions and only partially answered others.
Question: Who may scripturally marry?
Robert’s answer: “One who has no marriage and is of age.”
Therefore, Robert thinks that a person who has been divorced “for the cause of fornication” can “scripturally marry” another person, although the Lord said that involved committing adultery (Matthew 5:32; 19:9).
Question: Who may scripturally divorce?
Robert’s answer: “One of the parties in a dead marriage.”
I wish Robert had explained what he means by a “dead marriage” and cited Scripture for his answer!
Question: What is the difference between being “bound” to one man and being “married” to another (Romans 7:2-3)?
Robert’s answer: “Already discussed.”
Perhaps he “discussed” it, but he never explained a difference, according to his view. Paul wrote that a woman could be married to a second man while still bound to the first (Romans 7:2-3). Being “bound” and being “married” are not the same.
Question: Is a woman who has been “divorced” by her husband a “put away” woman?
Robert’s answer: “Divorced.”
I asked if she is a “PUT AWAY” woman, but Robert evaded my question! Of course, I can understand why he did not choose to tell us if she is “put away.” He assumes that a “put away” woman is NOT the same as a “divorced” woman.
Question: Can being in an unscriptural marriage keep one from going to heaven?
Robert’s answer: “It could.”
Robert knows there is such a thing as an “unscriptural marriage.” However, he thinks a man can divorce his wife for a reason other than sexual immorality and marry another woman (an unscriptural marriage—Matthew 5:32; 19:9) and still go to heaven. Jesus referred to such a situation as “adultery.” The Bible teaches adulterers will be lost (Galatians 5:19-21; Revelation 22:15; 1Corinthians 6:9-10).
I appreciate the opportunity to discuss with Robert the subject of divorce and remarriage. I urge each reader to “search the Scriptures” to learn what God has revealed on this, and every, subject. Truth makes us free (John 8:32). Error never does!