I'm pleased to be in the affirmative now and to endeavor to prove that:
"Jesus' teachings in Matt19:3-12 and 5:32 were in complete harmony with Moses' Law, which allowed for legal divorce."
This proposition is important because the "traditional position" (which is unscriptural) that many hold on Divorce and Remarriage, is based upon their understanding of these passages. Further, if what Jesus said in these passages was in harmony with the Law (that people were obligated to obey), then Brian's understanding is without foundation.
If it can be demonstrated that Jesus did not contradict the Law then all honest disciples who believe in the infallibility of God's word must realize that there is a logical explanation for Jesus' teachings that will harmonize with Moses and the teachings of the apostle Paul.
Questions:
(please answer yes or no where possible)
1. Was divorce allowed Under the Law of Moses (Deut24:1-4)?
2. Under the LOM, was divorce ever commanded in some situations?
3. Were the women (during O.T. times) that had been given a "bill of divorce" ever forbidden to remarry?
4. In the O.T., is there any implication that divorced women may be another man's wife?
5. Were the practices of the Pharisees (relating to Divorce and Remarriage), that Jesus called adultery, wrong before Jesus said it?
6. Does Jesus state that He is not going to change the Law until ALL be fulfilled (Matt. 5:17-19)?
7. When was "all" fulfilled?
8. Did Jesus establish his covenant, or law, before his death?
9. Did Christ's will take effect before his death?
10. When does a "will" (which we know is the "law of Christ") take affect?
11. Can you have two laws in effect at the same time?
12. Did Jesus teach something that required action that was contrary to their law that was then in effect?
13. If the answer to the above is yes, please endeavor to convince us why such is believable; since Jesus, in the same discourse, said He was not going to change the law until all is fulfilled?
14. Under the O.T. would it have been transgression (sin) for a man to change the Law regarding who could marry?
15. Was Jesus a man (1Tim2:5)?
16. Were the Jews taught that there would be a savior and that the "word of the Lord would go forth from Jerusalem"? Were John and Jesus authorized by the O.T. to teach the gospel? Could Jesus carry out His mission without sinning? Did He transgress (disobey) any Law?
17. Did the Pharisees consider Jesus to be anything other than a man?
18. Did the Pharisees seek diligently to entrap Jesus in his words and to charge him with teaching against the Law of Moses?
19. Did the Pharisees charge Jesus with breaking the Law on any occasion and if so were they correct in doing so and charging Him with sin?
20. Which is most reasonable? a) That Jesus contradicted (broke, transgressed, violated) the Law under which he lived; or b) The Pharisees merely THOUGHT, or slanderously charged, that Jesus had contradicted the Law, when he actually did not?"
21. Did the Pharisees make any sort of charge against Jesus that his teaching to them regarding "MDR" was contrary to the Law? If so please provide the passage.
22. Please explain why the Pharisees did not charge Jesus with teaching contrary to the Law when He answered their questions regarding the controversial teachings that go back to Deut. 24:1-4?
23. Why would Jesus consider it prudent to change the Law on Divorce and Remarriage while the Law of Moses was still in effect (which would have been viewed as transgression) since such, if God intended for it to be changed, could lawfully and properly be addressed by his apostles when teaching New Testament doctrine to New Testament subjects?
24. Is it important to follow proper hermeneutics on all subjects - to include the rule that forbids construing one passage so as to contradict another (For example: Deut24:1-4 verses Matt. 19:9), and the rule to consider the circumstances, such as to whom is being spoken and what law (or dispensation) was in effect at the time?
25. If one recognizes that it is untrue that Jesus contradicted Moses in his teachings on Divorce and Remarraige must they, if they follow rules of hermeneutics, conclude that Jesus did not teach against a divorced person marrying and therefore look for another logical conclusion?
Brotherly,
Robert Waters